Delayed Paddington - Heathrow T4

[yorkie]

If a passenger buys a 1st class ticket on a through train from Paddington to Heathrow Terminal 5, then there can be no doubt that a delay incurred between Heathrow T2/3 and Heathrow T5 would indisputably entitle the passenger to delay compensation for their journey through to Heathrow Terminal 5. Whether or not the NRCoT applies would be irrelevant. The fact that passengers making a journey from T2/3 to T5 can do so for free (in standard class) would also be irrelevant.

At the time the passenger travelled, it would have been all one company operating the trains to all terminals (this is no longer the case). So, at that time, if a passenger was to have gone through the same booking process, but choose their destination as Heathrow Terminal 4 and choose a Standard class ticket, it would not be unreasonable to expect delay compensation to apply just as equally as in the scenario given in the opening paragraph of this post. They would still be travelling with the same company, after all.

So, when it was all operated by the same company, I can see no good reason why the two scenarios should be materially different in respect of compensation in the event of delays.

 

[ForTheLoveOf]

If a passenger buys a 1st class ticket on a through train from Paddington to Heathrow Terminal 5, then there can be no doubt that a delay incurred between Heathrow T2/3 and Heathrow T5 would indisputably entitle the passenger to delay compensation for their journey through to Heathrow Terminal 5. Whether or not the NRCoT applies would be irrelevant. The fact that passengers making a journey from T2/3 to T5 can do so for free (in standard class) would also be irrelevant.

At the time the passenger travelled, it would have been all one company operating the trains to all terminals (this is no longer the case). So, at that time, if a passenger was to have gone through the same booking process, but choose their destination as Heathrow Terminal 4 and choose a Standard class ticket, it would not be unreasonable to expect delay compensation to apply just as equally as in the scenario given in the opening paragraph of this post. They would still be travelling with the same company, after all.

So, when it was all operated by the same company, I can see no good reason why the two scenarios should be materially different in respect of compensation in the event of delays.

This is expecting reasonableness from an inherently unreasonable system. CF prosecutions for failing to get a zero-fare excess before boarding!

 

[matt_world2004]

That’s not the question exactly. There is no suggestion there was any split ticketing involved here.

What is important is the question of whether, despite the fact the T4 shuttle runs for free, the OP had a contract to get to T4.

I don’t agree that he did. He had a contract to get to “Heathrow Rail”, which was delivered when he was deposited at T2/3 at the end of his paid journey.

It’s a free shuttle service, and there is, in my opinion, no compensation due. You’d have to get a lawyer to look at it and provide something authoritative, which would be a waste of time. Just write it off.

If the ticket was just a contract to get to terminals 2-3 it would have specified heathrow terminals 1,2,3 as a destination not heathrow rail with the passenger expected to make their own way on the free shuttle service to terminal 5/4 there would be no point in having heathrow rail as a station group otherwise. If there wasnt a contractual obligation to deliver passengers in that station group. Afterall all passengers have to paas through 2 and 3 rail station to get to terminal 4/5.