OK that's one example of another area where this shouldn't happen. It's certainly not widespread.
You mean shouldn’t happen
in your opinion. Prosecutions for strict liability offences involving TV licenses and speeding are common and take up a fair bit of courts’ time. So there are plenty of other examples of this happening, you just happen not to like them.
Prosecutions for railway ticketing offences are also not widespread and are a theoretical risk in all but the most serious of cases, or where people don’t engage with the system properly.
I am not sure what you are wanting to know exactly? As I've said the byelaws criminalise people who had no intention of wrongdoing; why would anyone be happy with that?
In which case you appear to be objecting to strict liability rather than railway prosecutions per se.
Can you give examples where customers have been prosecuted who had no intention of doing anything wrong?
Every time anyone has ever been prosecuted for any strict liability offence, as intention isn’t necessary.
And yet these laws are not used in Scotland; is there evidence of more harm occuring in Scotland than England & Wales?
Isn’t this whataboutery? I might as well ask whether there is evidence of more harm occurring in China or India? In any case, If penalty fares can’t be issued in Scotland, it follows they will be losing more revenue for any given level of fare evasion.
You are the one proposing to change the status quo, can you provide any evidence that your suggested approach will reduce this?
Who do
you think should suffer the £250m loss incurred by the network? Should it be taxpayers or fare payers?
Doubtful as people generally aren't aware of the archaic byelaws and many people would assume it wouldn't happen to them or would have no realistic alternative but to travel.
You’ll find many laws in this country are “archaic”, and ignorance is no excuse. The vast majority of travellers are aware they
some sanction will apply, even if they don’t know exactly what, and most are sensible and responsible enough to ensure they have the correct ticket.
The effects of mistreating customers is very difficult to measure.
“Customers” are not being “mistreated”. Passengers with invalid tickets are being dealt with accordingly - they are the kind of “customers” the railway could do without. If people like that are put off travelling by train, preferably permanently, so much the better!
I suggest your approach of applying no proper sanction to fare evasion because you don’t like railway bylaws is by far the more anti customer stance, because
someone has to come up with the £250m annual shortfall.
I don't think the average person would agree that someone who has no intention of wrongdoing should be prosecuted.
I’m not sure anyone on this forum can claim to speak for the average person as we all have far more knowledge than the average rail passenger. In any case this is yet another objection to the concept of strict liability, not railway bylaws per se.
If anyone doesn’t agree with strict liability their options are really to accept the status quo, vote accordingly/lobby MPs to change the law, or leave the UK!
Is it widely reported elsewhere? It's certainly been the case that people who have been issued penalty fares or asked to pay out of court settlements when not intending to avoid payment of the fare have generated negative press stories. A classic example of this was a few years ago when numerous threads popped up on this forum, referrin to news items which involved passengers being charged for starting or finishing short. The comments sections of such publications would be very hostile to the rail industry.
It isn’t widely reported anywhere else because it isn’t regarded as an important issue anywhere other than here. Doesn’t that tell you something?
Have you read this thread
https://www.railforums.co.uk/thread...s-related-to-rail-travel.243356/#post-6134156 where a non-recordable Byelaw offence became a big deal (in that case, the offence could have been prosected under the Regulations of Railways Act but that's a different argument/point altogether)
Yes I have read it. That case is dealing with police officers who have bunked their train fares and are being dealt with accordingly. It’s absolutely extraordinary that you’re apparently more affronted by these people being punished for (very intentional) fare evasion than you are by the fact that police officers have chosen to behave in this way in the first place - especially given the high profile cases of police misconduct in recent years, and the current highly damaging lack of trust in the police.
If these guys are bunking train fares then what else might they be doing? People who show a propensity for this kind of thing have absolutely no business wearing police uniforms.
Is there any evidence that the cost of fare evasion in Scotland is greater than in England & Wales?
This is whateboutary. Is there any evidence that repealing bylaws, as you have suggested, will reduce or increase losses to the railway?
For the most part, Scotland does things pretty well, especially in the Strathclyde area, where regular patrols of trains are made, and tickets are much more likely to be checked than in many parts of England (not just routes with only one member of staff, but also a lot of services near me, which have two staff on board, not just a driver, rarely see checks made).
As you well know *most* DOO trains are not like Strathclyde electrics and have hardly any checks. If DOO is rolled out further it will be done in a way that minimises operational costs - that is more likely to replicate Southeastern Metro and Thameslink than what happens in Scotland.
Is the amount of money lost due to fare evasion in Scotland higher than in England & Wales?
Is the money lost to fare evasion in China and India more than in England and Wales? It’s irrelevant.
You are the one proposing the bylaws are repealed in England and Wales, so surely you need to provide evidence that this will reduce the £250m annual loss to the railway.
Unfortunately the way the Byelaws are worded, a strict interpretation is that a ticket which is invalid for any reason, including those remedied by the NRCoT, could result in a conviction. My argument would be that the NRCoT has to be read in conjunction with the Byelaws, but it remains the case that some people have been treated as falling foul of the Byelaws due to a simple ticket restriction. I don't think the current system has sufficien safeguards in place to ensure that customers whose ticket is invalid due to a ticket restriction (such as a time or route restriction) are always treated as being entitled to an excess fare, rather than be prosecuted or faced with a Penalty Fare.
On what basis do you think NRCoT have to be read in conjunction with bylaws? One is a source of contractual terms incorporated into ticketing contracts, one is a series of statutes imposing strict liability criminal offence.
I disagree that the current system lacks sufficient safeguards. My evidence for that is that fare evasion is rife (people clearly do not cower in fear of railway prosecutions!), and the vast majority of offences are dealt with by way of discretion or penalty fare.
This forum suffers from Stockholm syndrome because of the disputes forum where the few fare evaders who are caught and dealt with flock to ask for advice, and perhaps because members have a penchant for pushing ticketing rules to breaking point.
The
vast majority of passengers buy their correct ticket and travel from A to B with no issues. And there is certainly no widespread call for reform of fare evasion rules - it’s a concern that only exists on here.
If you are on the wrong train company, you can be prosecuted. However it is not always clear which train company a train is operated by; not all screens will display this information and train companies such as Northern & TPE have been known to lease each other's trains and even staff. So you can't always tell by the livery of the train or even the uniform of the staff.
Having spent many years travelling around the network, working on it, and even working Thameslink trains while working for another TOC, I refuse to believe this is a widespread issue - it’s another theoretical risk being grossly exaggerated to further an agenda.
What actually happens when people board the wrong train is that staff invariably go out of their way to help.
Can you point to an example of someone who has been prosecuted because they have boarded the wrong train, believing they were in a different TOCs train?
It's been reported on this forum that internal agreements have been made with certain companies that if a delay to a passenger would be 61 or more minutes, ticket acceptance is automatically in place, however this is not always respected by staff, who may deem a passengers' ticket as invalid and the customer could be threatened with prosecution. Are there sufficient safeguards in place to ensure that where staff make mistakes of this nature, a threat of prosecution would not proceeed?
Passengers are not privy to internal agreements, so how could they possibly be acting in reliance on them? If ticket acceptance is in place you will generally be told via a website, if not it’s best to be proactive and check.
Do you think the passenger involved in the Lumo incident should have been threatened with prosecution?
This was the passenger who ended up with BTP getting involved? I suspect there was more to that story. He was on the incorrect train so should have been given a penalty fare at least.
If your ticket is lost or stolen, you can be deemed guilty of a Byelaw offence, even if you could prove that you had purchased the ticket by presenting receipts and booking confirmation emails, and there does not have to be any suggestion that the customer was in any way attempting to avoid the fare for such a prosecution to proceed.
If someone loses a ticket it’s their responsibility. In any case this is one of the oldest tricks in the book: 99% of people who claim to have lost their ticket won’t have bought one in the first place.
As for a ticket being stolen leading to prosecution, this is again a theoretical risk. Can you provide an example of anyone who has actually been prosecuted for having their ticket stolen when they can evidence purchase?
It isn't the same; can car insurances be excessed, can acceptance be in place between different operators, does car insurance have different routeing and time restriction options etc? You said earlier "the railway has no direct equivalent" and that statement is more correct than this one.
I never suggested it was a direct equivalent, I was giving an example of why strict liability offences are in place. If I choose to drive a car, the onus is on me to ensure I’m correctly insured. If I choose to travel by rail, the onus is on me to produce a valid ticket when asked.
Absolutely yes, the legal system does need to be changed and the byelaws should not criminalise railway ticketing matters, at least not under the byelaws.
That’s only your view, others will disagree.
Is there any evidence that view this is held more widely? Can you point to any political campaigns to change the law? Are there any passenger groups which regard this as a problem?
In the case documented at
https://www.railforums.co.uk/thread...s-and-invalid-tickets-opinions-please.245901/ the passenger was wrongly told to leave the train; had they not done so, they could have faced prosecution.
This is an example of someone being on the wrong train in the first place - entirely their own fault - who was initially offered a penalty fare.
Are you suggesting that someone who travels on the wrong train company should not do a job that requires a clean record? I was on a train from Leeds to York and was chatting to someone who is a teacher who was found to be on a TOC specific ticket and was sold a new ticket. Should he have been prosecuted (as the law allows), and should he be struck off for that?
If that person is prosecuted and convicted, that would be a decision for the relevant professional body. If that body requires absolute integrity and honesty then perhaps they should, yes.
That case is from over a decade ago and, from the initial responses, clearly involves someone who had travelled beyond what their ticket allowed and was offered the chance to pay a penalty fare in the first instance.
Here is another example:
https://www.railforums.co.uk/threads/taken-to-court-facing-criminal-charges-advice-needed.156920/ ; the passenger was travelling from Manchester to Andover with a "via London ticket" and travelled via Reading (avoiding the double-back into Paddington) and instead of being issued a zero fare excess (or simply being accepted) , XC chose to prosecute.
If he had a “via London” ticket, what was he doing travelling via Reading? I note he was also offered the chance to pay the correct fare and only prosecuted when he refused to engage.
So in summary, despite the huge number of cases in the disputes and prosecutions section, you have been unable to provide a single example of people actually being prosecuted for “innocent mistakes”. In all of these cases the passenger has done something wrong and then not paid a penalty fare or not engaged with the system. I’m not a bit surprised because I’ve asked that question several times, and never yet been given a good example.
I am glad we are agreed with me that most would agree that the train companies are engaging in wrongdoing
Why would anyone ever say otherwise?
People have been threatened with prosecution when doing no such thing (or equivalent thing).
For strict liability offences they will have been, but I was referring to the example you gave of someone who initially intended to pay but then changed their mind when the saw a ticket office queue.
But this isn't the correct comparison. (Incidentally, if a passenger boards and alights at unstaffed stations with no facility to pay and no check is made on board, they aren't guilty of any offence, so the analogy doesn't quite work anyway)
Yes it absolutely is the “correct comparison” in the example you gave earlier:
A passenger who finds a long queue at a station and fully intends to pay the fare and approaches staff immediately on boarding could still be given a Penalty Fare.
If I walk into a booking office, there is a means to pay, and I decide not to because of the queue I am committing an offence by
intentionally not paying at the first opportunity. In just the same way as someone in a supermarket queue who decides to walk out without paying because the queue is too long commits an offence.
These analogies are frought with issues; I don't agree with any of these analogies being appropriate or relevant.
It’s clear that you won’t accept
any analogy is relevant where it doesn’t accord with your view that the law needs to be changed. I think that’s what’s known as confirmation bias!
A passenger who boards a train with a TOC specific ticket and travels on the wrong TOC can be given a Penalty Fare; as detailed earlier a train can be operated in the livery of a different TOC and the staff may even be empoyed by a different TOC.
In some instances of passengers being deemed as travelling without a valid ticket, the customer actually had a contractual entitlement to be re-routed and/or ticket acceptance was agreed by the relevant companies to be in place; as this can be a prosecutable offence, passengers in that situation have on occasion chosen to alight from trains at remote stations, at great inconvenience to them.
I’m not quite clear what point is being made in the second paragraph. If someone boards a train when ticket acceptance is in place, or where they have permission, there is no offence committed.
What almost always happens in these situations is that someone who has chosen to buy a ticket for (say) a Lumo service gets to the station and decides they’ll jump onto an LNER service instead, hoping they won’t get noticed. Then when they do it’s all someone else’s fault.
I'd be shocked if there wasn't any!
So are there any examples?
I am not saying those obligations don't exist, but should passengers be automatically guilty of a strict liability offence when doing so?
Nobody is “automatically” guilty, they can only be found guilty if they are prosecuted.
The railway also doesn’t decide on guilt or innocence, that is a question for a magistrate court. Are you suggesting there’s something wrong with the UK courts system?
Also the definition of "correct train" is subject to interpretation when delays, cancellations and other disruptions occur; for example there have been recent instances of Northern/TPE staff refusing to allow each others customers on alternative services, and yet a member reports that an agreement between the companies to accept travel in the event of significant delays is in place.
If ticket acceptance is in place it will generally be communicated to staff. Staff are also perfectly entitled to refuse travel for reasons that go beyond ticket acceptance. I’m not sure what this has to do with strict liability bylaw offences?
The best approach in these situations is to (politely) ask and be proactive. If you board a train that isn’t the one your ticket is valid for, plonk yourself down, and then start arguing with the on train staff, this will more than likely lead to issues.
I stand by what I posted earlier. A reminder that I said the following in respect of what you describe as a "misleading statement":
I then quoted the Chiltern Penalty Fare leaflet (note that Chiltern are not the only TOC to make this claim); if anyone wants to write to Chiltern to ask them to clarify their position, I'd be interested to hear it!
Yes, your view of what penalty fares are for is (IMO) incorrect and directly contradicted by the guidance I quoted above. I have agreed with you that the Chiltern statement is misleading.
Which other TOCs make inaccurate claims about penalty fares? I agree they should be challenged and perhaps that would be a useful exercise for someone on here.
I am glad you agree that Penalty Fares are being issued to people who have no intention of avoiding the fare (in England & Wales).
Of course they are. That is an example of the law working as it should.
However I don't agree that the only realistic alternative, when a passenger has made a mistake of the sort described, but has not intended to avoid the fare, should be a prosecution. Neither of these options are available in Scotland and yet I doubt fare evasion is more rife there than in England & Wales; do you have any evieence that it is?
Whether it’s more rife or not, if they’re unable to issue penalty fares then logically they must be losing more revenue
for any given amount of fare evasion.
As pointed out, can I see your evidence that your proposed changes will reduce losses to the railway?
I think in the end we will need to agree to disagree. You disagree with the law and want it changed, I want the existing law enforced more effectively. I haven’t seen any evidence that yours is anything other than a left field, niche viewpoint, which doesn’t appear to enjoy wider political support, or even support amongst passenger groups.
I don’t see any chance of the law being changed in the near future, or enforcement being improved, so I doubt either of us will get we want.
I don't think I've seen a better general summing up of these situations including the application of 19th century laws to 21st century activity, the most egregious being where a passenger can prove the purchase of a ticket by reference to a banking app etc even if the paper/electronic version is unavailable for whatever reason.
What’s your objection to 19th century laws applying today? If I don’t buy a train ticket I’ll be charged under railway bylaws, if I get into a fight in a pub and assault someone, I’ll be charged under the Offences Agains the Person Act, 1861.
The offences haven’t changed in the last hundred and fifty years, so neither has the law.